I'm beginning to think that the tax law is complicated principally because people think they are special and others aren't. So we see the addition of tax law provisions written in convoluted terms that are designed to direct the tax breaks to a select few. In other instances, we see complicated statutes and even more complex regulations crafted to preclude the various games that are played to avoid taxes.
Last week a question was posed to the ABA-TAX list. A subscriber described
situation involving an S corporation whose shareholders entered into an agreement stating "that the Board of Directors can arbitrarily decide who the profits of the corporation are distributed to." The agreement contained a "set formula" and "some 'bonus based on performance' provisions." Under the formula, the profits would be used to pay the "owner's taxes and to pay enough to
the younger owner to finance his buyout of the older owner."
The attorney who drafted the agreement explained "that the plan allows the ownership percentage to be adjusted to however we want it, thus moving income from the high tax bracket owner to the low tax bracket owner even though the profits were not distributed that way."
The question: "Can they do this?" Stated differently, " Is a corporation allowed to arbitrarily decide annually who is getting and reporting the profits?"
The answer is, "Yes, they can do this but they're going to have a pile of tax problems."
If the profits are distributed disproportionately to stock ownership, the S corporation will have a second class of stock and the S election will terminate. Without going into details, suffice it to say that termination of the S election is bad news.
In addition, if they start changing ownership percentages there's going to be an interesting array of gift tax, stock transfer tax, and income tax (disposition) issues. Unless the stock is worthless (which would make the profit allocation question moot), the outcomes will not be welcomed by the shareholders.
What they're trying to do can be explained in simple terms: A takes the income, B gets taxed. Any student who understands basic tax principles knows that this game was played decades ago and the taxpayers lost. Of course, taxpayers keep trying to find new ways of making B pay the tax on A's economic gain. One has to wonder if the attorney who drafted the shareholder agreement understands the basics of federal taxation, let alone S corporation tax rules.
The subscriber who posted the original question replied that the attorney claims that "the actual stock doesn't transfer ... but the 'phantom stock' plan allows the stockholders to manipulate who
reports what, even if the stock does not change hands." Wow.
The attorney reportedly also explained that, "[a]s for pushing tax to the lower bracketed owner, the agreement says all taxes of the shareholders will be paid by the corporation, so he says
that doesn't matter." Sorry, but it does matter. Because the shareholders are in different tax brackets, the tax paid on behalf of one shareholder's share of the profits will be disproportionate to the tax paid on behalf of the other shareholder's share. This creates a second class of stock. It is an issue specifically addressed in the regulations because some states permit, or require, S corporations to pay state income taxes on behalf of shareholders, in some instances, the non-resident shareholders. Corporations must be careful to make payments in a way that maintains the proportionality characteristic of one class of stock.
It was also reported that the attorney in question is "a pretty renowned tax INSTRUCTOR part time at a university." Oh, my.
The discussion was taking such a strange turn, I had to clarify things. So I asked:
So let me see if I have this.
A owns, say, 30%. B owns, say, 45%. C owns 25%.
The S corporation has profits of $100,000. They want A to get, say, $72,000, but to pay the tax on $30,000?
So if A takes a distribution of $72,000, it's disproportionate and the S election does down the tube.
Oh, wait, so they'll claim that $42,000 of what goes to A is really B's and C's. And what is that? Seems to me there's a gift from B and C to A. Or some sort of taxable event. Either way, big problems.
Oh, no, it is claimed. A owns 72 of the 100 pretend shares. So A can take $72,000 and it won't be disproportionate.
Yes, but what about the attempt to have $42,000 of the $72,000 taxed to someone else? Isn't that assignment of income?
No, comes the reply. We're special. We don't worry about that. That's because we'll pretend that A is paying pretend taxes on the $72,000.
Better yet, we'll have the corporation pay the taxes. There's no deemed distribution there, is there? Oh, no, not more disproportionate distributions? Goodness, we're in an algebraic computational time loop.
What nonsense.
As [another subscriber] pointed out, the only way to split the corporation's earnings in a way that comports with tax law is to pay compensation. It's not a problem measuring it with phantom this or that. There are people who earn compensation based on phantom work. But that compensation must be taxed to the person to whom it is paid, and if the corporation pays the income tax, there's even more compensation. Old Colony Trust ... a case reached very early in the basic tax course, even before the assignment of income cases.
But I doubt such an approach will be satisfactory to shareholders who are trying to do the "I get the money, you pay the tax" routine. It's a routine almost as old as the tax law itself.
So I wonder how long it takes before umpteen dozen students are offering this "phantom plan" to *their* clients, tagging it as renowned. Gee, if enough S corporations do this, maybe it becomes tax law de facto?
Yes, there's more than a wee bit of sarcasm in my inquiry, but why do people insist that somehow they can find a way around a very simple, basic rule? If A owns x% of the S corporation stock, A must pay tax on x% of the S corporation's profits. Any attempt to distribute something to A other than x% of the profits, or to have some other shareholder taxed on some or all of A's share of the profits simply isn't permissible. What's so difficult to understand about that principle? Why are some folks so intent on disregarding it? Do they really believe that they are so special that a different set of rules should apply to their situation?
It gets worse. When another subscriber pointed out that this issue, and similar if not identical plan, had been discussed a few months ago, the subscriber who posed the recent question explained that the previous topic had also been generated by his question, dealing with a different client, same attorney. Apparently the earlier client chose to ignore the attorney's plan. Good move.
So in addition to asking why some people are so intent on trying to create a special set of tax rules that work to their advantage, I also ask why there are tax practitioners who so willingly offer to those people "plans" that supposedly do what those folks want to do? Is the desire for money so strong that people will set aside logic, reasoning, common sense, statutory language, others' bad experiences, and honesty in order to drum up business?
The response to these ploys will be yet more pages of tax law. Tax laws that say "we really mean it." Tax laws that use 30-word phrases instead of a word so that the masters of deception find it even more difficult to peddle the tax snake oil to unsuspecting, though perhaps greedily gullible, taxpayers.
The rule is simple: If A owns x% of the S corporation stock, A must pay tax on x% of the S corporation's profits. It's too bad some people just cannot take it for what it is.