Reader Morris asked, “What are the federal tax consequences of this barter exchange to each party on gross income, capital gains or losses, and ownership of the property?” In other words, reader Morris is asking, if the landlord accepted the offer, what would be the federal income tax consequences? It surely is a hypothetical question because I would be shocked if the landlord accepted the offer that is alleged to have been made.
If the parties went through with the proposed barter, the outcome would depend on the resolution of a fact question. The question is, what is the value of the “art” that is offered in satisfaction of the debt? Though the answer could be anything between $0 and the amount of the back rent, let’s consider two possibilities, one at either end of that spectrum.
If the fact finder determined that the value of the “art” was equal to the back rent, then the landlord, if on the cash method, would have rental gross income. If the landlord were on the accrual method and had already accrued the rental income, then receipt of payment would not have any tax consequences. No matter the outcome to the landlord, the tenant would be treated as having “sold or exchanged” property, which is a realization event. The tenant would have amount realized equal to the amount of the unpaid rent. The tenant’s adjusted basis in the “art” would be zero, a conclusion consistent with case law holding that the basis of blood and other body products sold by a taxpayer is zero. The resulting income would not be a capital gain because body products are not capital assets, a conclusion consistent with that same case law.
If the fact finder determined that the value of the “art” was less than the back rent, say zero or some token several dollars, and that the landlord accepted it in satisfaction of the unpaid rent, the landlord would have rental gross income equal to the value of the “art,” say zero or the token several dollars, unless the landlord was on the accrual method in which case there would be no income. The landlord would be treated as having released the balance of the debt (either the full amount or slightly less than the full amount), and would claim a bad debt deduction if the rent had already been accrued. The consequences to the tenant would be determined by application of the rules applicable to forgiveness of indebtedness. There would be gross income in the amount of the balance of the debt (either the full amount or slightly less than the full amount) unless one of the five exceptions apply. Was the debt discharged in bankruptcy? Under the assumed facts, most likely not. Is the tenant insolvent? We don’t know. The debt is not qualified farm indebtedness or qualified real property business indebtedness. Is the debt qualified principal residence indebtedness? No, because the debt related to rent and not to the acquisition cost of purchasing a residence.
The proposed transaction is about as likely to take place as the payment of a debt in the manner proposed by Shylock in the Merchant of Venice. And if Shylock had succeeded (for those unfamiliar with the story, he ended up with money and not flesh), and if the federal tax system or one identical to it applied, the analysis would be the same as that presented for the situation in the “art” for rent story.
Critics might wonder why invest intellectual capital in analyzing a transaction that did not happen and almost certainly will not happen. The answer is simply that doing this analysis, for example, on a federal income tax exam, strengthens one’s intellectual skill set just as running prepares the runner for an actual race. But to be honest, I analyzed the question posed by reader Morris not so much to strengthen or maintain the strength of my intellectual skill set as to explore a totally bizarre situation. A situation that adds to the long list of proofs that support what I, and other tax law professors, tell students, “We don’t need to invent hypotheticals, they’re out there just waiting for us.”